Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 06:12
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
How are Hinduism and Sikhism related, considering they both originated in Punjab, India?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.